Q76: Antibiotic treatment of choice for treating
cholera in an adult is a single dose of ?
A) Tetracycline
B) Co-trimoxazole
C) Doxycycline
D) Furazolidone
Answer: C) Doxycycline
Q77: For the treatment of case of class III dog
bite, all of the following are correct except ?
A) Give Immunoglobins for positive immunity
B) Give ARV
C) Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage
D) Immediately wash wound with soap and water
Answer: C) Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic
coverage
Q78: A 59 year old man with severe myxomatous mitral
regurgitation is asymptomatic, with a left ventricular ejection fraction of 45%
and an end-systolic diamater index of 2.9 cm/m2. The most appropriate treatment
is ?
A) Mitral valve repair or replacement
B) No treatment
C) ACE inhibitor therapy
D) Digoxin and diuretic therapy
Answer: A) Mitral valve repair or replacement
Q79: Palpable purpura could occur in the following
conditions, except ?
A) Thrombocytopenia
B) Small-vessel vasculitis
C) Disseminated gonococcal infection
D) Acute meningococcemia
Answer: A) Thrombocytopenia
Q80: A 30 years old male patient presents with
complaints of weakness in right upper and both lower limbs for last 4 months.
He developed digital infarcts involving 2nd and 3rd fingers on right side and
5th finger on left side. On examination, BP was 160/140 mm Hg, all peripheral
pulses were palpable and there was asymmetrical neuropathy. Investigations
showed a Hb-12gm, TLC-12000Cu mm, Platelets 4,30,000, ESR- 49 mm. Urine
examination showed proteinuria and RBC 10 - 15 /hpf with no casts. Which of the
following is the most likely diagnosis ?
A) Polyarteritis nodosa
B) Systemic lupus erythematosus
C) Wegener's granulomatosis
D) Mixed cryoglobulinemia
Answer: A) Polyarteritis nodosa
Q81: Which of the following infestation leads to
malabsorption ?
A) Giardia lamblia
B) Ascaris lumbricoides
C) Necator americana
D) Ancyclostoma duodenale
Answer: A) Giardia lamblia
Q82: All of the following can cause osteoporosis,
except ?
A) Hyperparathyroidism
B) Steroid use
C) Fluorosis
D) Thyrotoxicosis
Answer: C) Fluorosis
Q83: Serum angiotensin converting enzyme may be
raised in all of the following except ?
A) Sarcoidosis
B) Silicosis
C) Berylliosis
D) Bronchogenic carcinoma
Answer: D) Bronchogenic carcinoma
Q84: Hypercalcemia associated with malignancy is
most often mediated by ?
A) Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
B) Parathyroid hormone related protein (PTHrP)
C) Interleukin - 6 (IL-6)
D) Calcitonin
Answer: B) Parathyroid hormone related protein (PTHrP)
Q85: All of the following are the causes of relative
polycythemia except ?
A) Dehydration
B) Dengue haemorrhagic fever
C) Gaisbock syndrome
D) High altitude
Answer: D) High altitude
Q86: All of the following may cause ST segment
elevation on EKG, except ?
A) Early repolarization variant
B) Constrictive pericarditis
C) Ventricular aneurysm
D) Prinzmetal angina
Answer: B) Constrictive pericarditis
Q87: 5' - Nucleotidase activity is increased by ?
A) Bone diseases
B) Prostate cancer
C) Chronic renal failure
D) Cholestatic disorders
Answer: D) Cholestatic disorders
Q88: Normal CSF glucose level in a normoglycemic
adult is ?
A) 20 - 40 mg/dL
B) 40 - 70 mg/dL
C) 70 - 90 mg/dL
D) 90 - 110 mg/dL
Answer: B) 40 - 70 mg/dL
Q89: Bart's hydrops fetalis is lethal because ?
A) Hb Bart's cannot bind oxygen
B) The excess á - globin form insoluble precipitates
C) Hb Bart's cannot release oxygen to fetal tissues
D) Microcytic red cells become trapped in the placenta
Answer: C) Hb Bart's cannot release oxygen to fetal tissues
Q90: Cluster headache is characterized by all,
except ?
A) Affects predominantly females
B) Unilateral headache
C) Onset typically in 20 - 50 years of life
D) Associated with conjunctival congestion
Answer: A) Affects predominantly females
Q91: The most sensitive test for the diagnosis of
myasthenia gravis is ?
A) Elevated serum Ach-receptor binding antibodies
B) Repetitive nerve stimulation test
C) Positive edrophonium test
D) Measurement of jitter by single fibre electromyography
Answer:D) Measurement of jitter by single fibre electromyography
Q92: Vitamin B12 deficiency can give rise to all of
the following except ?
A) Myelopathy
B) Optic atrophy
C) Peripheral neuropathy
D) Myopathy
Answer: D) Myopathy
Q93: EEG is usually abnormal in all of the following
except ?
A) Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
B) Locked - in state
C) Creutzfeldt - Jackob disease
D) Hepatic encephalopathy
Answer: B) Locked - in state
Q94: All of the following are neurologic
channelopathies except ?
A) Hypokalemiac periodic paralysis
B) Episodic ataxia type I
C) Familial hemiplegic migraine
D) Spinocerebellar ataxia I
Answer: D) Spinocerebellar ataxia I
Q95: All of the following conditions are known to
cause diabetes insipidus except ?
A) Multiple sclerosis
B) Head injury
C) Hisitiocytosis
D) Viral encehalitis
Answer: A) Multiple sclerosis
Q96: Antipsychotic drug-induced parkinsonism is
treated by ?
A) Anticholinergics
B) Levodopa
C) Selegiline
D) Amantadine
Answer: A) Anticholinergics
Q97: Which one of the following is used in therapy
of Toxoplasmosis ?
A) Artensenuate
B) Thiacetazone
C) Ciprofloxacin
D) Pyrimethamine
Answer: D) Pyrimethamine
Q98: Which of the following drugs is useful in
prophylaxis of migraine ?
A) Propranolol
B) Sumatriptan
C) Domperidone
D) Ergotamine
Answer: A) Propranolol
Q99: The most common pathogens responsible for
nosocomial pneumonias in the ICU are ?
A) Gram positive organisms
B) Gram negative organisms
C) Mycoplasma
D) Virus infections
Answer: B) Gram negative organisms
Q100: A 50 year old man, an alcoholic and a smoker
presents with a 3 hour history of severe retrosternal chest pain and increasing
shortness of breath. He started having this pain while eating, which was
constant and radiated to the back and interscapular region. He was a known
hypertensive. On examination, he was cold and clammy with a heart rate of
130/min, and a BP of 80/40 mm Hg. JVP was normal. All peripheral pulses were
present and equal. Breath sounds were decreased at the left lung base and chest
x-ray showed left pleural effusion. Which one of the following is the most
likely diagnosis ?
A) Acute aortic dissection
B) Acute myocardial infarction
C) Rupture of the esophagus
D) Acute pulmonary embolism
Answer: A) Acute aortic dissection
Q101: Which of the following is a cause of
reversible dementia ?
A) Subacute combined degeneration
B) Picks disease
C) Creutzfeldt - Jakob disease
D) Alzheimer's disease
Answer: A) Subacute combined degeneration
Q102: The following bacteria are most often
associated with acute neonatal meningitis except ?
A) Escherichia coli
B) Streptococcus agalactiae
C) Neisseria meningitidis
D) Listeria monocytogenes
Answer: C) Neisseria meningitidis
Q103: Atypical pneumonia can be caused by the
following microbial agents except ?
A) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
B) Legionella pneumophila
C) Human Corona virus
D) Klebsiella pneumoniae
Answer: D) Klebsiella pneumoniae
Q104: The most common organism amongst the following
that causes acute meningitis in an AIDS patient is ?
A) Stretococus pneumoniae
B) Streptococcus agalactiae
C) Cryptococcus neoformans
D) Listeria monocytogenes
Answer: C) Cryptococcus neoformans
Q105: A bacterial disease that has been associated
with the 3
A) Leptospirosis
B) Plague
C) Melioidosis
D) Rodent-bite fever
Answer: A) Leptospirosis
Q106: Which one of the following is true of adrenal
suppression due to steroid therapy ?
A) It is not associated with atrophy of the adrenal glands
B) It does not occur in patients receiving inhaled steroids
C) It should be expected in anyone receiving > 5mg,
Prednisolone daily
D) Following cessation, the stress response normalises after
8 weeks
Answer: C) It should be expected in anyone receiving >
5mg, Prednisolone daily
Q107: Pancreatitis, pituitary tumor and
phaeochromocytoma may be associated with ?
A) Medullary carcinoma of thyroid
B) Papillary carcinoma of thyroid
C) Anaplastic carcinoma of thyroid
D) Follicular carcinoma of thyroid
Answer: A) Medullary carcinoma of thyroid
