Monday, 8 June 2015

AIPGMEE 2005 QUESTION WITH ANSWERS - PATHOLOGY



Q187: Differential expression of same gene depending on parent of origin is referred to as ?
A) Genomic imprinting
B) Mosaicism
C) Anticipation
D) Nonpenetrance

Answer: A) Genomic imprinting

Q188: The chances of having an unaffected baby, when both parents have achondroplasia, are ?
A) 0 %
B) 25 %
C) 50 %
D) 100 %

Answer: B) 25 %

Q189: Study the following carefully:
                                     
                                  
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┌──┐               
          

Read the pedigree. Inheritance pattern of the disease in the family is ?
A) Autosomal recessive type
B) Autosomal dominant type
C) X Linked dominant type
D) X Linked recessive type

Answer: D) X Linked recessive type

Q190: Fibrinoid necrosis may be observed in all of the following except ?
A) Malignant hypertension
B) Polyarteritis nodosa
C) Diabetic glomerulosclerosis
D) Aschoff's nodule

Answer: C) Diabetic glomerulosclerosis

Q191: All of the following statements are true regarding reversible cell injury, except ?
A) Formation of amorphous densities in the mitochondrial matrix
B) Diminished generation of adenosine triphosphate (ATP)
C) Formation of blebs in the plasma membrane
D) Detachment of ribosomes from the granular endoplasmic reticulum

Answer: A) Formation of amorphous densities in the mitochondrial matrix

Q192: Which of the following statements pertaining to leukemia is correct ?
A) Blasts of acute myeloid leukemia are typically sudan black negative
B) Blasts of acute lymphoblastic leukemia are typically myeloperoxidase positive
C) Low leucocyte alkaline phosphatase score is characteristically seen in blastic phase of chronic myeloid leukemia
D) Tartarate resistant acid phosphatase positivity is typically seen in hairy cell leukemia

Answer: D) Tartarate resistant acid phosphatase positivity is typically seen in hairy cell leukemia

Q193: In which of the following conditions bilateral contracted kidneys are characteristically seen ?
A) Amyloidosis
B) Diabetes mellitus
C) Rapidly progressive (crescentic) glomerulonephritis
D) Benign nephrosclerosis

Answer: D) Benign nephrosclerosis

Q194: All of the following CSF findings are present in tuberculous meningitis, except ?
A) Raised protein levels
B) Low chloride levels
C) Cob web formation
D) Raised sugar levels

Answer: D) Raised sugar levels

Q195: All of the following vascular changes are observed in acute inflammation, except ?
A) Vasodilation
B) Stasis of blood
C) Increased vascular permeability
D) Decreased hydrostatic pressure

Answer: D) Decreased hydrostatic pressure

Q196: The subtype of Hodgkin's disease, which is histogenetically distinct from all the other subtypes, is ?
A) Lymphocyte predominant
B) Nodular sclerosis
C) Mixed cellularity
D) Lymphocyte depleted

Answer: A) Lymphocyte predominant

Q197: In apoptosis, Apaf-1 is activated by release of which of the following substances from the mitochondria ?
A) Bcl-2
B) Bax
C) Bcl-XL
D) Cytochrome C

Answer: D) Cytochrome C

Q198: Which type of amyloidosis is caused by mutation of the transthyretin protein ?
A) Familial Mediterranean fever
B) Familial amyloidotic polyneuropathy
C) Dialysis associated amyloidosis
D) Prion protein associated amyloidosis

Answer: B) Familial amyloidotic polyneuropathy

Q199: In familial Mediterranean fever, the gene encoding the following protein undergoes mutation ?
A) Pyrin
B) Perforin
C) Atrial natriuretic factor
D) Immunoglobulin light chain

Answer: A) Pyrin

Q200: Which of the following statements is not true ?
A) Patiens with IgD myeloma may present with no evident M-spike on serum electrophoresis
B) A diagnosis of plasma cell leukemia can be made if circulating peripheral blood plasmablasts comprise 14% of peripheral blood white cells in a patient with white blood cell count of 11 X 100 /L and platelet count of 88 X 109 /L
C) In smoldering myeloma plasma cells constitute 10 - 30% of total bone marrow cellularity
D) In a patient with multiple myeloma, a monoclonal light chain may be detected in both serum and urine

Answer: B) A diagnosis of plasma cell leukemia can be made if circulating peripheral blood plasmablasts comprise 14% of peripheral blood white cells in a patient with white blood cell count of 11 X 100 /L and platelet count of 88 X 109 /L

Q201: In-situ DNA nick end labeling can quantitate ?
A) Fraction of cells in apoptotic pathways
B) Fraction of cells in S phase
C) p53 gene product
D) bcr/abl gene

Answer: A) Fraction of cells in apoptotic pathways

Q202: Which one of the following serum levels would help in distinguishing an acute liver disease from chronic liver disease ?
A) Aminotransferase
B) Alkaline phosphatase
C) Bilirubin
D) Albumin

Answer: D) Albumin

Q203: Which one of the following stains is specific for Amyloid ?
A) Periodic Acid Schiff (PAS)
B) Alzerian red
C) Congo red
D) Von - Kossa

Answer: C) Congo red

Q204: Which one of the following diseases characteristically causes fatty change in liver ?
A) Hepatitis B virus infection
B) Wilson's disease
C) Hepatitis C virus infection
D) Chronic alcoholism

Answer: D) Chronic alcoholism

Q205: A 48 year old woman was admitted with a history of weakness for two months. On examination, cervical lymph nodes were found enlarged and spleen was palpable 2 cm below the costal margin. Her hemoglobin was 10.5 g/dl, platelet count 237 X 109 / L and total leukocyte count 40 X 109 /L, which included 80% mature lymphoid cells with coarse clumped chromatin. Bone marrow revealed a nodular lymphoid infiltrate. The peripheral blood lymphoid cells were positive for CD19, CD5, CD20, CD23 and were negative for CD79B and FMC-7. The histopathological examination of the lymph node in this patient will most likely exhibit effacement of lymph node architecture by ?
A) A pseudofollicular pattern with proliferation centers
B) A monomorphic lymphoid proliferation with a nodular pattern
C) A predominantly follicular pattern
D) A diffuse proliferation of medium to large lymphoid cells with high mitotic rate

Answer: D) A diffuse proliferation of medium to large lymphoid cells with high mitotic rate

Q206: The most common leukocytoclastic vasculitis affecting children is ?
A) Takayasu disease
B) Mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome (Kawasaki disease)
C) Henoch Schonlein purpura
D) Polyarteritis nodosa

Answer: C) Henoch Schonlein purpura

Q207: A four year old boy was admitted with a history of abdominal pain and fever for two months, maculopapular rash for ten days, and dry cough, dyspnea and wheezing for three days. On examination, liver and spleen were enlarged 4 cm and 3 cm respectively below the costal margins. His hemoglobin was 10.0 g/dl, platelet count 37 x 109/L and total leukocyte count 70 x 109/L, which included 80% eosinophils. Bone marrow examination revealed a cellular marrow comprising 45% blasts and 34% eosinophils and eosinophilic precursors. The blasts stained negative for myeloperoxidase and non-specific esterase and were positive for CD 19, CD 10, CD22 and CD20. Which one of the following statements in not true about this disease ?
A) Eosinophils are not part of the neoplastic clone
B) t(5; 14) rearrangement may be detected in blasts
C) Peripheral blood eosinophilia may normalize with chemotherapy
D) Inv (16) is often detected in the blasts and the eosinophils

Answer: D) Inv (16) is often detected in the blasts and the eosinophils

Q208: Kidney biopsy from a child with hemolytic uremic syndrome characteristically most likely presents features of ?
A) Thrombotic microangiopathy
B) Proliferative glomerulonephritis
C) Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
D) Minimal change disease

Answer: A) Thrombotic microangiopathy

Q209: The classification proposed by the International Lymphoma Study Group for non-Hodgkin's lymphoma is known as ?
A) Kiel Classification
B) REAL Classification
C) WHO Classification
D) Rappaport Classification

Answer: B) REAL Classification

Q210: One of the intestinal enzymes that is generally deficient in children following an attack of severe infectous enteritis is ?
A) Lactase
B) Trypsin
C) Lipase
D) Amylase

Answer: A) Lactase

Q211: A new born presetned with bloated abdomen shortly after birth with passing of less meconium. A full-thickness biopsy of the rectum was carried out. Which one of the following is most likely to be present ?
A) Fibrosis of submucosa
B) Hyalinisation of the muscular coat
C) Thickened muscularis propria
D) Lack of ganglion cells

Answer: D) Lack of ganglion cells

Q212: All of the following features are seen in the viral pneumonia except ?
A) Presence of interstitial inflammation
B) Predominance of alveolar exudates
C) Bronchiolitis
D) Multinucleate giant cells in the bronchilar wall

Answer: B) Predominance of alveolar exudates

Q213: Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by which of the following immunoglobulins ?
A) Ig A
B) Ig G
C) Ig M
D) Ig E

Answer: D) Ig E

Q214: Which of the following is the most common location of hypertensive bleed in the brain ?
A) Putamen / External capsule
B) Pons
C) Ventricles
D) Lobar white matter

Answer: A) Putamen / External capsule

Q215: A woman with infertility receives an ovary transplant from her sister who is an identical Twin. What type of graft it is ?
A) Xenograft
B) Autograft
C) Allograft
D) Isograft

Answer: D) Isograft

Q216: The following is not a feature of malignant transformation by cultured cells ?
A) Increased cell density
B) Increased requirements for growth factors
C) Alterations of cytoskeletal structures
D) Loss of anchorage

Answer: B) Increased requirements for growth factors

Q217: A simple bacterial test for mutagenic carcinogens is ?
A) Ames test
B) Redox test
C) Bacteriophage
D) Gene splicing

Answer: A) Ames test

Q218: In Von Hippel-Lindau Syndrome, the retinal vascular tumors are often associated with intracranial hemangioblastoma. Which one of the following regions is associated with such vascular abnormalities in this syndrome ?
A) Optic radiation
B) Optic tract
C) Cerebellum
D) Pulvinar

Answer: C) Cerebellum

Q219: Aschoff's nodules are seen in ?
A) Subacute bacterial endocarditis
B) Libman-Sacks endocarditis
C) Rheumatic carditis
D) Non-bacterial thrombotic endocarditis

Answer: C) Rheumatic carditis

Q220: Which one of the following is not a feature of liver histology in Non cirrhotic portal fibrosis (NCPF) ?
A) Fibrosis in and around the portal tracts
B) Thrombosis of the medium and small portal vein branches
C) Non specific inflammatory cell infiltrates in the portal tracts
D) Bridging fibrosis

Answer: D) Bridging fibrosis

Q221: Which one of the following soft tissue sarcomas frequently metastasizes to lymph nodes ?
A) Fibrosarcoma
B) Osteosarcoma
C) Embryonal Rhabdomyosarcoma
D) Alveolar soft part sarcoma

Answer: C) Embryonal Rhabdomyosarcoma


Q222: An example of a tumor suppressor gene is ?
A) myc
B) fos
C) ras
D) Rb

Answer: D) Rb

Q223: Which one of the following conditions commonly predisposes to colonic carcinoma ?
A) Ulcerative colitis
B) Crohn's disease
C) Diverticular disease
D) Ischaemic colitis

Answer: A) Ulcerative colitis