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Thursday 9 July 2015

GENERAL MEDICINE - AIIMS 2003 MAY QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS



Question 40:Which test is performed to detect reversible myocardial ischemia ?
A) Coronary angiography
B) MUGA scan
C) Thallium scan
D) Resting echocardiography

Ans:C
Question 41:Which of the following statements about peptic ulcer disease is true ?
A) Helicobacter pylori eradication increases likelihood of occurrence of complications
B) The incidence of complications has remain unchanged
C) The incidence of Helicobacter pylori reinfection in India is very low
D) Helicobacter pylori eradication does not alter the recurrence ratio

Expected Ans:D

Question 42:Which of the following markers in the blood is the most reliable indicator of recent hepatitis B infection ?
A) HBsAg
B) IgG anti-HBs
C) IgM anti-HBc
D) IgM anti-HBe

Ans:C

Question 43:Which of the following is the commonest location of hypertensive hemorrhage?
A) Pons
B) Thalamus
C) Putamen / external capsule
D) Cerebellum

Ans:C
Question 44:Which of the following is not a usual feature of right middle cerebral artery territory infarct ?
A) Aphasia
B) Hemiparesis
C) Facial weakness
D) Dysarthria

Ans:A
Question 45:Which of the following imaging modality is most sensitive to detect early renal tuberculosis ?
A) Intravenous urography
B) Ultrasound
C) Computed tomography
D) Magnetic resonance imaging

Ans:A
Question 46:Tophus is the pathognomonic lesion of which of the following condition ?
A) Multiple myeloma
B) Cystinosis
C) Gout
D) Eale's disease

Ans:C
Question 47:The severity of mitral stenosis is clinically best decided by ?
A) Length of diastolic murmur
B) Intensity of diastolic murmur
C) Loudness of first heart sound
D) Split of second heart sound

Ans:A
Question 48:The severity of mitral regurgitation is decided by all of the following clinical findings except ?
A) Presence of mid-diastolic murmur across the mitral valve
B) Wide split of second heart sound
C) Presence of left ventricular S3 gallop
D) Intensity of systolic murmur across mitral valve

Ans:A
Question 49:The risk of developing infective endocarditis is the least in a patient with ?
A) Small ventricular septal defect
B) Severe aortic regurgitation
C) Severe mitral regurgitation
D) Large atrial septal defect

Ans:D
Question 50:The following statements are true regarding botulism except ?
A) Infant botulism is caused by ingestion of preformed toxin
B) Clostridium botulinum A,B,C and F cause human disease
C) The gene for botulinum toxin is encoded by a bacteriophage
D) Clostridium baratti may cause botulism

Ans:A
Question 51:The administration of succinylcholine to a paraplegic patient led to the appearance of dysarrhythmias, conduction abnormalities and finally cardiac arrest. The most likely cause is ?
A) Hypercalcemia
B) Hyperkalemia
C) Anaphylaxis
D) Hypermagnesemia

Ans:B
Question 52:Sleep apnoea is defined as a temporary pause in breathing during sleep lasting at least ?
A) 40 seconds
B) 30 seconds
C) 20 seconds
D) 10 seconds

Ans:D
Question 53:Kenny Packs were used in the treatment of ?
A) Poliomyelitis
B) Muscular dystrophy
C) Polyneuropathies
D) Nerve injury

Ans:A
Question 54:Hypocalcemia is characterized by all except ?
A) Numbness and tingling of circumoral region
B) Hyperactive tendon reflexes and positive Chvostek's sign
C) Shortening of Q - T interval in ECG
D) Carpopedal spasm

Ans:C
Question 55:Haemorrhagic pericarditis occurs in all of the following conditions except ?
A) Transmural myocardial infarction
B) Dissecting aneurysm of aorta
C) Metastatic disease of pericardium
D) Constrictive pericarditis

Ans:D
Question 56:Father to son inheritance is never seen in case of ?
A) Autosomal dominant inheritance
B) Autosomal recessive inheritance
C) X-linked recessive inheritance
D) Multifactorial inheritance

Ans:C
Question 57:Congenital long QT syndrome can lead to ?
A) Complete heart block
B) Polymorphic ventricular tachycardia
C) Acute myocardial infarction
D) Recurrent supraventricular tachycardia

Ans:B
Question 58:Atrial fibrillation may occur in all of the following conditions except ?
A) Mitral stenosis
B) Hypothyroidism
C) Dilated cardiomyopathy
D) Mitral regurgitation

Ans:B
Question 59:An obese lady aged 45 years, was brought to emergency in a semicomatose condition. The laboratory investigations showed K+ (5.8 mmol/l); Na+ (136 mmol/l); blood pH (7.1); HCO3- (12mmol/L); ketone bodies (350mg/dL). The expected level of blood glucose for this lady is ?
A) < 45 mg/dl
B) < 120 mg/dl
C) > 180 mg/dl
D) < 75 mg/dl

Ans:C
Question 60:An HIV- positive patient is on anti-retroviral therapy with zidovudine, lamivudine and indinavir. He is proven to be suffering from genito-urinary tuberculosis. Which one of the following drugs should not be given to this patient ?
A) Isoniazid
B) Rifampicin
C) Pyrazinamide
D) Ethambutol

Ans:B
Question 61:All of the following signs could result from infection within the right cavernous sinus except ?
A) Constricted pupil in response to light
B) Engorgement of the retinal veins upon ophthalmoscopic examination
C) Ptosis of the right eyelid
D) Right ophthalmoplegia

Ans:A
Question 62:All of the following features are suggestive of asbestosis except ?
A) Occurs within five years of exposure
B) The disease progresses even after removal of contact
C) Can lead to pleural mesothelioma
D) Sputum contains asbestos bodies

Ans:A
Question 63:All are correct about potassium balance except ?
A) Most of the potassium is intracellular
B) Three quarter of the total body potassium is found in skeletal muscle
C) Intracellular potassium is released into extracellular space in response to severe injury or surgical stress
D) Acidosis leads to movement of potassium from extracellular to intracellular fluid compartment

Ans:D
Question 64:A young man with tuberculosis presents with massive recurrent hemoptysis. For angiographic treatment which vascular structure should be evaluated first ?
A) Pulmonary artery
B) Bronchial artery
C) Pulmonary vein
D) Superior venacava

Ans:B
Question 65:A young female presents with history of dyspnoea on exertion. On examination, she has a wide, fixed split of S2 with ejection systolic murmur (III/IV) in left second intercostal space. Her EKG shows left axis deviation. The most probable diagnosis is ?
A) Total anomalous pulmonary venous drainage
B) Tricuspid atresia
C) Ostium primum atrial septal defect
D) Ventricular septal defect with pulmonary artery hypertension

Ans:C
Question 66:A shift of posture from supine to upright posture is associated with cardiovascular adjustments. Which of the following is NOT true in this context ?
A) Rise in central venous pressure
B) Rise in heart rate
C) Decrease in cardiac output
D) Decrease in stroke volume

Ans:A
Question 67:A renal biopsy from a 56 years old women with progressive renal failure for the past 3 years shows glomerular and vascular deposition of pink amorphous material. It shows apple-green birefringence under polarized light after Congo red staining. These deposits are positive for lambda light chains. The person is most likely to suffer from ?
A) Rheumatoid arthritis
B) Tuberculosis
C) Systemic lupus erythematosus
D) Multiple myeloma

Ans:D
Question 68:A patient with recent onset primary generalised epilepsy develops drug reaction and skin rash due to phenytoin sodium. The most appropriate course of action is ?
A) Shift to clonazepam
B) Restart phenytoin sodium after 2 weeks
C) Shift to sodium valproate
D) Shift to ethosuximide

Ans:C
Question 69:A man presents with fever and chills 2 weeks after a louse bite. There was a maculopapular rash on the trunk which spread peripherally. The cause of this infection can be ?
A) Scrub typhus
B) Endemic typhus
C) Rickettsial pox
D) Epidemic typhus

Ans:D
Question 70:An adult male patient presented in the OPD with complaints of cough and fever for 3 months and haemoptysis off and on. His sputum was positive for AFB. On probing it was found that he had already received treatment with RHZE for 3 weeks from a nearby hospital and discontinued. How will you categorize and manage the patient ?
A) Category III, start 2 (RHZ)3
B) Category II, start 2 (RHZE)3
C) Category I, start 2 (RHZE)3
D) Category II, start 2 (RHZES)3

Ans:C
Question 71:A 62 year old man with carcinoma of lung presented to emergency department with respiratory distress. His EKG showed electrical alterans. The most likely diagnosis is ?
A) Pneumothorax
B) Pleural effusion
C) Cardiac tamponade
D) Constrictive pericarditis

Ans:C
Question 72:A 60 year old hypertensive patient on Angiotensin II receptor antagonists (losartan) is posted for hernia repair surgery. The antihypertensive drug should be ?
A) Continued till the day of operation
B) Discontinued 24 hrs preoperatively
C) Discontinued one week preoperatively
D) Administered in an increased dosage on the day of operation

Ans:B
Question 73:A 45 year old hypertensive male presented with sudden onset severe headache, vomiting and neck stiffness. On examination he didn't have any focal neurologic deficit. His CT Scan showed blood in the sylvian fissure. The probable diagnosis is ?
A) Meningitis
B) Ruptured aneurysm
C) Hypertensive bleed
D) Stroke

Ans:B
Question 74:A 40-year-old man has a chronic cough with fever for several months. The chest radiograph reveals a diffuse reticulonodular pattern. Microscopically on transbronchial biopsy there are focal areas of inflammation containing epithelioid cell granuloma, Langhans giant cells, and lymphocytes. These findings are typical for which of the following type of hypersensitivity immunologic responses ?
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV

Ans:D