Q247.The
most important prognostic factor in breast carcinoma is :
A. Histological
grade of the tumour.
B. Stage
of the tumour at the time of diagnosis.
C. Status
of estrogen and progesterone receptors.
D. Over
expression of p-53 tumour suppressor gene.
Ans: B. Stage of the tumour at the time of diagnosis.
Q248.Smoking
is generally not associated as a risk factor with :
A. Small
cell carcinoma.
B. Respiratory
bronchiolitis.
C. Emphysema.
D. Bronchiolitis
obliterans organizing pneumonia.
Ans: D. Bronchiolitis obliterans organizing pneumonia.
Q249.The
tumour, which may occur in the residual breast or overlying skin following wide
local excision and radiotherapy for mammary carcinoma, is :
A. Leiomyosarcoma.
B. Squamous
cell carcinoma.
C. Basal
cell carcinoma.
D. Angiosarcoma.
Q250.The
type of mammary ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) most likely to result in a
palpable abnormality in the breast is :
A. Apocrine
DCIS.
B. Neuroendocrine
DCIS.
C. Well
differentiated DCIS.
D. Comedo
DCIS.
Ans: D. Comedo DCIS.
Q251.Acinic
cell carcinomas of the salivary gland arise most often in the :
A. Parotid
salivary gland.
B. Minor
salivary glands.
C. Submandibular
salivary gland.
D. Sublingual
salivary gland.
Ans: A. Parotid salivary gland.
Q252.All of
the following statements regarding primary effusion lymphoma are true except :
A. It
generally presents in elderly patients.
B. There
is often an association with HHV-8.
C. The
proliferating cells are NK cells.
D. Patients
are commonly HIV positive.
Ans: C. The proliferating cells are NK cells.
Q253.Mantle
cell lymphomas are positive for all of the following, except :
A.
CD 23.
B.
CD 20.
C.
CD 5.
D.
CD 43.
Ans: A. CD 23.
Q254.Fine
needle aspiration cytology is not suitable for diagnosing :
A. Tubercular
lymphadenitis.
B. Papillary
carcinoma thyroid.
C. Plasmacytoma.
D. Aneurymal
bone cyst.
Ans: D. Aneurymal bone cyst.
Q255.All of
the following immunohistochemical markers are positive in the neoplastic cells
of granulocytic sarcoma, except :
A. CD
45 RO.
B. CD
43.
C. Myeloperoxidase.
D.
Lysozyme.
Ans: A. CD 45 RO.
Q256.B cell
prolymphocytic leukemia patients differ from those with B cell chronic
lymphocytic leukemia in :
A.
Presenting at a younger age.
B.
Having a lower total leucocyte count.
C.
Having prominent lymphadenopathy.
D.
Having a shorter survival.
Ans: D. Having a shorter survival.
Q257.Which
one of the following is the most significant risk factor for development of
gastric carcinoma?
A. Paneth
cell metaplasia.
B. Pyloric
metaplasia.
C. Intestinal
metaplasia.
D.
Ciliated metaplasia.
Ans: C. Intestinal metaplasia.
Q258.Which
of the following statements is true regarding testicular tumours?
A. Are
embryonal cell carcinomas in 95% of cases.
B. Bilateral
in upto 10% cases.
C. Teratomas
are more common than seminomas.
D. Usually
present after 50 years of age.
Ans: B. Bilateral in upto 10% cases.
Q259.The
most common retrobulbar orbital mass in adults is:
A. Neurofibroma.
B. Meningioma.
C. Cavernous
haemangioma.
D. Schwannoma.
Ans: C. Cavernous haemangioma.
Q260.Expansile
lytic osseous metastases are characteristic of primary malignancy of :
A. Kidney.
B. Bronchus.
C. Breast.
D. Prostate.
Ans: A. Kidney.
Q261.Mixed
tumours of the salivary glands are:
A. Most
common in submandibular gland.
B. Usually
malignant.
C. Most
common in parotid gland.
D. Associated
with calculi.
Ans: C. Most common in parotid gland.
Q262.In
which of the following types of breast carcinoma, would you consider biopsy of
opposite breast?
A. Adenocarcinoma-poorly
differentiated.
B. Medullary
carcinoma.
C. Lobular
carcinoma.
D.
Comedo carcinoma.
Ans: C. Lobular carcinoma.
Q263.When
carcinoma of stomach develops secondarily to pernicious anemia, it is usually
situated in the
A. Pre
Pyloric region.
B. Pylorus.
C. Body.
D.
Fundus.
Ans: B. Pylorus.
Q264.With
regard to the malignant behaviour of leiomyosarcoma, the most important
criterion is :
A. Blood
vessel penetration by tumour cells.
B. Tumour
cells in lymphatic channels.
C. Lymphocyte
infiltration.
D. The
number of mitoses per high power field.
Ans: D. The number of mitoses per high power field.
Q265.The
most radiosensitive tumour among the
following is:
A. Bronchogenic
carcinoma.
B. Carcinoma
parotid.
C. Dysgerminoma.
D. Osteogenic
sarcoma.
Ans: C. Dysgerminoma.
Q266.In a
suspected of ovarian cancer, imaging work-up is required for all of the
following information, except:
A. Detection
of adenexal lesion.
B. Characterization
of the lesion.
C. Staging.
D. Assess
resectability.
Ans: B. Characterization of the lesion.
Q267.In
which of the following age group Myelodysplastic Syndromes (MDS) are most
common?
A. 2-10.
B. 15-20.
C. 25-40.
D. >50.
Ans: D. >50.
Q268.A
patient with leukemia on chemotherapy develops acute right lower abdominal pain
associated with anemia, thrombocytopenia and leukopenia. Which of following is the clinical diagnosis?
A. Appendictis.
B. Leukemic
colitis.
C. Perforation
peritonitis.
D.
Neutropenic colitis.
Ans: D. Neutropenic colitis.
Q269.The
ideal timing of radiotherapy for Wilms Tumour after surgery is:
A. Within
10 days.
B. Within
2 weeks.
C. Within
3 weeks.
D. Any
time after surgery.
Ans: A. Within 10 days.
Q270.Which
of the following is used in the treatment of differentiated thyroid cancer:
A. 131I.
B. 99mTc.
C. 32p.
D.
131I-MIBG.
Ans: A. 131I.
Q271.The
treatment of choice for squamous cell anal cancer is:
A. Abdomino
perennial resection.
B. Laser
fulgaration.
C. Chemoradiotherapy.
D.
Platinum based chemotheraphy.
Ans: C. Chemoradiotherapy.
Q272.Which
of the following is the most common type of Glial tumors?
A. Astrocytomas.
B. Medulloblastomas.
C. Neurofibromas.
D.
Ependymomas.
Ans: A. Astrocytomas.
Q273.Which
of the following tumors is not commonly known to increase in pregnancy?
A. Glioma.
B. Pituitary
adenoma.
C. Meningioma.
D.
Neurofibroma
Ans: D. Neurofibroma
